Thank you for writing and sharing your gracious comments and excellent questions.

Regarding arriving at Christ's intended meaning of what it is to be "lawless," one need look only to the following passage:

Matthew 7:21-23
"Not everyone who says to Me, "Lord, Lord,' will enter the kingdom of heaven, but he who does the will of My Father who is in heaven will enter. Many will say to Me on that day, "Lord, Lord, did we not prophesy in Your name, and in Your name cast out demons, and in Your name perform many miracles?' And then I will declare to them, "I never knew you; DEPART FROM ME, YOU WHO PRACTICE LAWLESSNESS.'"

Christ clearly reveals what it means to be lawless. It is to fail to do what was proclaimed in the first sentence. Man is called to "do the will of the Father who is in heaven."

This obedience is not achieved through keeping the Law. Consider that in every instance Christ cited; casting out demons, prophesying, and performing miracles, there is no prohibition in the Law of Moses pertaining to these works. The failure came in because men were not directed by the Father to these works.

Christ did all of the things mentioned, but NEVER of His own initiative. We too must be led of the Spirit in all we do.

Lawlessness for the saints in Christ is a failure to be led of the Spirit. When a man does any work of his own initiative, whether apparently a good work, or an evil work, that is an act of lawlessness.

Lawlessness is the state of being out from under authority.

May you be blessed with peace and understanding in these days.

Another issue I have come across is the use of the word, "lawless" in our English translations. I've used the KJV for years but in the last two years have been using the NKJV and the NASB and in those versions (and others) the Greek word "anomia" is translated as "lawlessness" instead of "transgression" or "transgresseth". I never realized the KJV does not have the word "lawlessness" in it at all, until I started reading other translations. "Lawkeepers" view this as an error in the KJV and maybe it is, I'm still doing some research on it. In my NKJV I see the word "lawless" everywhere and my mind wants to automatically think it's referring to the Law of Moses (I think this is going on in the "Lawkeeper's minds). My dear friend uses the word "law-less-ness" (how she pronounces it, stressing the "law-less" part) as meaning absent from the Law of Moses, justifying the use of the Law in a believer's life. The "Lawkeepers" use this verse to accuse us "Spirit led believers" who want to be led and walk in the Spirit as condoning "lawlessness", but surely depending on the context, "lawlessness" is not always referring to the Law of Moses. I think in your last post or the writing before that, you made a statement that "lawlessness" is walking in our own will and not in the will of the Father. Can you help me out here? I think this is key in a believer's life, it's one reason I think the Church is a mess, everyone has been keeping externals to appear righteous before men, but there is no "power" thereof.

Mat 23:26-28 (ESV) "You blind Pharisee! First clean the inside of the cup and the plate, that the outside also may be clean. Woe to you, scribes and Pharisees, hypocrites! For you are like whitewashed tombs, which outwardly appear beautiful, but within are full of dead people's bones and all uncleanness. So you also outwardly appear righteous to others, but within you are full of hypocrisy and lawlessness."

It's interesting Jesus was calling the "Lawkeepers" lawless here…that's the worst insult to a proud "Lawkeeper"!

Again, thanks- I am so blessed by these writings and learning much.